Đề Thi Vstep B1-B2-C1 Full 04 Kỹ Năng
- Bạn đang tìm kiếm Đề Thi Vstep bậc 3-5 (hay còn gọi là đề thi vstep B1-B2-C1) full 4 kỹ năng có đáp án?
- Bạn cần nắm rõ cấu trúc Đề Thi Vstep 2023 để thi thử Vstep tại nhà nhằm chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi này?
- Bạn có những thắc mắc liên quan đến điểm thi, hiệu lực chứng chỉ Vstep bậc 3-5 (B1-B2-C1)?
- Thậm chí, bạn cần tìm hiểu về khóa học luyện thi Vstep cấp tốc 1.5 tháng hoặc ôn từ Căn bản 03 tháng tại Anh ngữ Thiên Ân?
Vậy thì … bạn cần phải làm đề thi vstep này ngay!!!
(Nếu cần hỗ trợ thêm, đừng ngần ngại chat với thầy cô ở góc phải dưới màn hình nhé!)(Bài test được tham khảo từ sách VSTEP Collection (20 Mock Tests) – ThS. Nguyễn Thị Tú, ThS. Bùi Thị Phương Thảo, ThS. Hoàng Thị Phong Linh, ThS. Trần Quang Nam & ThS. Lê Thùy Trang)
- Cấu trúc đề thi IELTS (Academic & General)
- Cấu trúc đề thi VSTEP (B1-B2-C1)
- Cấu trúc đề thi PET (B1) Cambridge
- Cấu trúc đề thi TOEIC Speaking & Writing
- Cấu trúc đề thi TOEIC Listening & Reading
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi IELTS
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi PET (B1)
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi TOEIC Speaking & Writing
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi TOEIC Listening & Reading
Thông Tin Chi Tiết Về Đề Thi Vstep B1-B2-C1
Bạn xem thông tin chi tiết tại đây nhé! https://anhnguthienan.edu.vn/cau-truc-de-thi-vstep/
Đề Thi Vstep - Listening (Test 5) - 40 phút
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Part 1 (Questions 1-8): In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you've booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye. On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday? A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All meals
Part 1 (Q1-4)
Question 1: Where would you probably hear this announcement?
A. In a moving van
B. In a school
C. In an office building
D. In an office supply shop
Question 2: Where would someone hear this message?
A. Calling a newspaper company
B. Calling ajournalist
C. Calling a telephone company
D. Calling a law firm
Question 3: How long are the classes?
A. 45 minutes
B. An hour
C. An hour and a half
D. Two hours
Question 4: What should Jen do tomorrow?
A. Turn her cell phone back on
B. Check her email, even if it is at home
C. Make sure she gets an office address
D. Give people her new contact information
Part 1 (Q5-8)
Question 5: What is the purpose of this announcement?
A. To welcome visitors
B. To ask people to leave soon
C. To tell people about the exhibition
D. To ask people to come
Question 6: What is the main point of this announcement?
A. To welcome visitors
B. To ask people to leave soon
C. To tell people about the exhibition
D. To ask people to come
Question 7: Who is Gary Reynolds?
A. A security officer
B. An airline pilot
C. A flight attendant
D. An airline employee
Question 8: What does the woman recommend the listeners to do?
A. Go to the website
B. Go back to their rooms
C. Talk to the hotel manager
D. Wait for more information
Part 2 (Questions 9-20): In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Part 2 (Q9-12)
Question 9: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. How to get a better grade in class
B. How to write a better essay
C. How to write a paragraph
D. How to organize an essay
Question 10: According to professor Smith, what is important for essay writing?
A. Many good ideas
B. Strong introduction
C. Summary
D. Organization
Question 11: How many parts are there in an essay?
A.Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Question 12: What are the functions of the body paragraphs?
A. To summarize the main ideas
B. To provide examples and ideas
C. To provide evidences and details
D. To give main ideas for an essay
Part 2 (Q13-16)
Question 13: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. Taking a math test
B. Getting a tutor
C. Taking a midterm test
D. Having a part-time job
Question 14: What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Help him finish his homework
B. Tutor him with a subject at school
C. Teach him English·
D. Find him a good math teacher
Question 15: What will happen if the students cheat?
A. They will be expelled from school.
B. They cannot take the final exam.
C. They will be fined.
D. They will have to study again.
Question 16: Which of the following the tutor CANNOT do for the student?
A. The learning strategies
B. Taking notes
C. Homework
D. Leaming tips
Part 2 (Q17-20)
Question 17: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. Ways a student can make up for missed lectures
B. How to avoid getting sick and missing school
C. How to get a scholarship
D. How to get high scores
Question 18: Why did the woman miss the lessons?
A. Because of her sickness
B. Because of the accident
C. Because of the severe weather
D. Because of her laziness
Question 19: What does the woman want the man to do for her?
A. Lend her his notes
B. Give her an extension
C. Give her a scholarship
D. Explain the lessons
Question 20: What should the woman probably do next?
A. Go on a vacation
B. Go to the library to do some research
C. Hang out with her classmates
D. Apply for a scholarship
Part 3 (Questions 21-35): In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Part 3 (21-25)
Question 21: What is the student’s problem?
A. He didn’t do well on his final exam.
B. He didn’t do all his coursework.
C. He missed too many classes.
D’. He moved away from the school.
Question 22: What does the student want the professor to do?
A. He wants her to give him a new test.
B. He wants an immediate change of grade.
C. He wants her to let him take the class again.
D. He wants her to give him an incomplete in the class.
Question 23: Listen again to a part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the professor mean when she says this?
A. You have to deal with this.
B. This is the solution.
C. I can’t deal with this.
D. Let’s come to an agreement.
Question 24: What is the professor’s solution to the student’s problem?
A. He has to write 2 critical essays.
B. He has to fill out a lot of paperworks.
C. He has to re-read all of Shakespeare’s plays.
D. He has to have read all the Shakespeare’s plays.
Question 25. What is the student’s attitude toward the solution?
A. Relieved
B. Disappointed
C. Shocked
D. Ungrateful
Part 3 (Q26-30)
Question 26: Why does the student go to the tutoring center?
A. Because she doesn’t have a clue how to use a computer
B. Because she wants to help putting her presentation together
C. Because she’s never used the presentation viewer program before
D. Because she’s nervous about speaking in front of people
Question 27: Listen again to a part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the man mean when he says this?
A. He wants to know if her presentation will have graphics and animation.
B. He wants to know if she needs a whistle.
C. He wants to know if she needs a timer.
D. He wants to know if she needs sound.
Question 28: What does the man say about using the presentation viewer program?
A. It is an easy program to use.
B. It is a very complicated program.
C. It is not part of the tutoring subjects at the center.
D. It doesn’t have as many interesting features as the word processing.
Question 29: What is the student concerned about?
A. Researching her topic
B. Working with the computer
C. Speaking in front of other people
D. How to operate the power source on her computer
Question 30: What does the man advise the student to bring to the tutoring session?
A. Her research paper
B. Her outline
C. The program
D. Her laptop
Part 3 (Q31-35)
Question 31: What is the focus of the lecture?
A. Doug Levere’s re-photography of Abbott’s work
B. Berenice Abbott’s Changing New York project
C. Two examples of photography supported by the FAP
D. The effect of the Depression on Berenice Abbott’s work
Question 32: According to the professor, why was Abbott a good candidate for the FAP?
A. She had already been documenting America.
B. She had a fresh perspective due to her recent return.
C. She was willing to change her approach to fit the FAP.
D. She was a widely recognized figure in the art world.
Question 33: Based on the lecture, what artistic characteristics did Abbott reject in her art?
A . Modem urban life
B. Depiction of older buildings
C. Meticulous composition
D. Rural settings and landscapes
Question 34: What did Abbott do to “keep the life in her shots”?
A. Use a hand-held camera
B. Include random people in the frame
C. Frame scenes of urban activity
D. Juxtapose old and new buildings
Question 35: What is the professor’s attitude toward Levere’s re-photography of Abbott’s work?
A. Concerned
B. Unimpressed
C. Disappointed
D. Complimentary


Đề Thi Thử VSTEP - Reading (Test 5) - 60 Phút
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D for each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10
The influx of Americans into Oregon in the 1840s ignited a dispute between Britain and the United States that, in its more intemperate phases, was accompanied by shrill demands in both countries for war. The argument originated in the fact that the boundaries of Oregon had never been clearly fixed.
The name vaguely embraced the territory west of the Rockies between the northern boundary of Mexican-held California and the southern edge of Russian-held Alaska, which at the time extended south to farallel 54°40′. In 1818, when America proposed a boundary at the 49t parallel an extension of the border with Canada that already existed east of the Rockies and the British suggested a line farther south, statesmen of both nations avoided the resulting impasse by agreeing to accept temporary “joint occupancy”.
But by the early 1840s, the issue could no longer be avoided: Oregon fever and Manifest Destiny had become potent political forces. Though many eastern Americans considered Oregon country too remote to become excited about, demands for its occupation were shouted with almost religious fervor. Senator Thomas Hart Benton, for one, urged Congress to muster “thirty or forty thousand American rifles beyond the Rocky Mountains that will be our effective negotiators.”
The Democratic Party made “54°40′ or fight”, an issue of the 1844 Presidential election and just managed to install James K. Polk, an ardent expansionist, in the White House. But despite their seeming intransigence, neither Polk nor the British government wanted to fight. And just about the time that Polk learned that the land lying north of the 49th parallel was useless for agriculture, the British decided the American market for goods was worth far more than Oregon’s fast-dying fur trade. So they quietly settled for the 49th parallel, the boundary that the United States had proposed in the first place.
1. What is the main idea of this passage is?
A. The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved.
B. The United States wanted more “land than it needed.
C. Politicians in 1840 favored war with Britain.
D. The United States ended up by sharing Oregon with Canada.
2. The word “intemperate” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. untimely
B. initial
C. immoderate
D. uninformed
3. As used in the passage, the word “fixed” is closest in meaning to ____.
A. repaired
B. adjusted
C. built
D. established
4. The word “remote” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. far away
B. dangerous
C. large
D. uninteresting
5. The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the early 1840s for all the following reasons EXCEPT ____.
A. more people were living in Oregon at that time
B. the expansionists made the situation a political issue
C. all people were united in favoring the expansion and settlement of Oregon
D. Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time
6. The word “ardent” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. superficial
B. enthusiastic
C. old
D. moderate
7. The word ”they” in the passage refers to ____.
A. the Americans
B. the British and the Americans
C. the British
D. the Democratic Party
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas Hart Benton ____.
A. was a temperate man
B. supported the occupation of Oregon by force
C. felt negotiation was the best policy
D. proposed and approved the final boundary decision
9. The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of the following reasons EXCEPT ____.
A. the dying fur trade in Oregon
B. the attraction of the American market for goods
C. the condition of the land north of 49°
D. the desire for a good fight
10. It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary, settlement the United States ____.
A. got the land that it had originally demanded
B. got less land than it had originally demanded
C. got more land than it had originally demanded
D. had no interest in the land involved in the dispute
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
For all their great diversity of shapes and sizes, glaciers can be divided into two essential types: valley glaciers, which flow downhill from mountains and are shaped by the constraints of topography, and ice sheets, which flow outward in all directions from dome like centers of accumulated ice to cover vast expanses of terrain. Whatever their type, most glaciers are remnants of great shrouds of ice that covered the earth eons ago. In a few of these glaciers the oldest ice is very ancient indeed; the age of parts of the Antarctic sheet may exceed 500,000 years.
Glaciers are born in rocky wombs above the snow line, where there is sufficient winter snowfall and summer cold for snow to survive the annual melting. The long gestation period of a glacier begins with the accumulation and gradual transformation of snowflakes. Soon after they reach the ground, complex snowflakes are reduced to compact, roughly spherical ice crystals, the basic components of a glacier. As new layers of snow and ice, snow that survives the melting of the previous summer, accumulate, they squeeze out most of the air bubbles trapped within and between the crystals below. This process of recrystallization continues throughout the life of the glacier.
The length of time required for the creation of glacier ice depends mainly upon the temperature and the rate of snowfall. In Iceland, where snowfall is heavy and summer temperatures are high enough to produce plenty of meltwater, glacier ice may come into being in a relatively short time say, ten years. In parts of Antarctica, where snowfall is scant and the ice remains well below its melting temperature year-round, the process may require hundreds of years. The ice does not become a glacier until it moves under its own weight, and it cannot move significantly until it reaches a critical thickness the point at which the weight of the piled-up layers overcomes the internal strength of the ice and the friction between the ice and the ground. This critical thickness is about 60 feet. The fastest moving glaciers have been gauged at not much more than two and a half miles per year, and some cover less than 1/100 inch in that same amount of time. But no matter how infinitesimal the flow, movement is what distinguishes a glacier from a mere mass of ice.
11. This passage mainly discusses ____.
A. the size and shape of glaciers
B. the formation of glaciers
C. why glaciers move
D. two types of glaciers
12. The word “constraints” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. restrictions
B. height
C. beauty
D. speed
13. Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?
A. It is a slow-moving glacier.
B. One would expect glaciers in this part of the world.
C. It contains some of the oldest ice in existence.
D. It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet.
14. In order to describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of ____.
A. birth
B. snowflakes
C. crystals
D. Iceland
15. The phrase “this process” in the passage refers to ____.
A. air bubbles being trapped below
B. snow andice compressing the ice crystals
C. formation of ice from snow that is about to melt
D. melting of summer snow
16. The word “trapped” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. enclosed
B. hunted
C. formed
D. stranded
17. According to the passage, what is one of the differences between valley glaciers and ice sheets?
A. Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers.
B. While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all directions.
C. Valley glaciers are thicker than ice sheets because of the restricting land formations.
D. Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets.
18. The word “it” in the passage refers to ____.
A. glacier
B. weight
C. ice
D. critical thickness
19. The word “significantly” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. quickly
C. thoroughly
B. naturally
D. notably
20. According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is ____.
A. the critical thickness of the ice
B. the amount of ice accumulated
C. themovement ofthe ice
D. the weight of the ice
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30
Pottery refers to dishes, plates, cups and cooking pots made out of clay. Chinese pottery was invented during the Neolithic period (5,000- 2,2’00 BC) and it was molded by hand. Before this time, people had been nomadic, making it difficult to carry heavy, breakable pieces of pottery. At first, pottery was made by pushing a hole into a ball of clay or by taking a piece of clay and coiling it up into a pot shape. Many early pots were simple lumps of clay. However, people rater discovered that clay, when placed in an open fire, hardened. This technique, known as firing, soon became common practice in pottery production.
People used pottery as a way of forming their social identity or showing who they were and how they were different from other people. Many of the designs that were used on pottery were usually borrowed from those already found on clothing and garments. The decoration of pottery began with simple incisions, which were later painted on. Gradually, plants, animals, and human figures were included on the vases. Mythological scenes were common as were dancers, musicians, and images from everyday life.
[A] Pottery also has roots in ancient China where, for centuries, people produced black, carved, and painted pieces from rough clay. It was in the Sui dynasty, however, that the aesthetics of pottery took a major leap forward. [B] Potters began experimenting with porcelain and the effect was a stunning, shiny new look and feel for Chinese ceramics. [C] This gleaming pottery became popular not only in China, but in West Asia as well. [D] Inevitably, this led to a new market for cheap imitations.
After 1,200 AD, Chinese potters began using different colored glazes to create designs on their pots. Chinese pottery was still the best and most expensive. After thousands of years of advancements in technique and materials, painted porcelain such as blue and white, tri- color, and under-glazed became successfully produced.
The Chinese often used pottery as part of the burial ritual; bronze vessels were decorated with elaborate designs of plants and animals. In Chinese culture, jade symbolizes nobility, perfection, and immortality. Jade utensils were laid over the deceased and some were placed in the mouth or enclosed in the hand. Liquids were placed in the vessels to help the dead in their afterlife and also to aid in funerary ceremonies in which the living communicated with deceased ancestors and gods in an altered state of consciousness after drinking fermented beverages.
Such vessels containing liquids have been excavated at centers near the Yellow River, especially from burials of elite, eminent individuals. Many pottery fragments and figurines have also been discovered in the Chang Jiang drainage area.
Pottery can be divided into three groups: those designed for storage, those for preserving or holding liquids, and those for special uses. The Greeks made pottery for many purposes. the custom of burning their dead involved using vases to collect the ashes. Some pottery served as decorative pieces, while others were used for ceremonies or during religious festivals. Amphoras were larger vessels used to store liquids such as water or wine. Amphoras have occasionally been found in ancient shipwrecks; some held wine-and others were shipped empty after selling their contents off to other countries. The Alabastron had special uses such as holding perfume or oil. The Skyphes, a flat-bottomed bowl, was used as a drinking cup.
Grecian soil had many deposits of clay near rivers. This abundance of raw material was not available to others, giving the Greeks a strategic. advantage in manufacturing material. They made full use of clay. After its discovery, vessels were made in a wide range of sizes and shapes. Jugs, vases, fruit bowls, and feeding bottles were widely used in homes. Although some larger vessels were made of stone, glass, or metal, clay was by far the most prominent.
The ancient Egyptians used pottery and ceramic art for burial purpose. Four vases were sometimes deposited with the mumified body. A large number of vases which have been recovered had been buried with the dead in tombs. Some vases are found hanging or standing upright in the tomb. They appear to have been valued by the deceased, hence leaving them for burial in the tomb.
21. According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements is true of early pottery?
A. The first pots were made of hardened clay.
B. The nomadic nature of man before the Neolithic period prevented the widespread use of pottery.
C. Pottery was invented as a way of storing fresh fish and meats.
D. It was not possible to fashion clay into shapes for pottery.
22. The word “incisions” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. figures
B. squares
C. paintings
D. cuts
23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about pottery designs?
A. Designs helped the pot to stay together and not break.
B. The designs on pottery reflected the culture of those who made them.
C. Three basic techniques to produce pottery vessels have been used around the world.
D. Pot design was imaginative arid unique in every example.
24. The word “gleaming” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. shiny
B. dull
C. delicate
D. soft
25. According to the passage, whose pottery was regarded as the most valuable?
A. Japanese
B. Egyptian
C. Chinese
D. Greek
26. The author mentions “jade” in the passage in order to ____.
A. demonstrate how stone could be carved into pottery
B. give an example of the use of expensive material in burials
C. show how different cultures value different materials
D. explain the difficulties in mining a stone for pottery
27. The word “deceased” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. sick
B. dying
C. dead
D. diseased
28. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. The use of substantial amounts of clay in Greece resulted in a culture rich in pottery.
B. The ancient Greeks had a more advanced way to construct pottery.
C. Pottery making was harder for the ancient Greeks, but pottery was important to them for storage.
D. Pottery was very convenient and useful because the raw material, clay, was abundant and simple to shape and fire In Greek.
29. According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a use of pottery? ____.
A. storing wine
B. ceremonial offerings
C. holding ashes
D. cooking
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
However, it was very expensive there because it had to be carried from China on camel sand donkeys.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40
Louis Pasteur was arguably the greatest biologist of the 19th century. His immense contributions were among the most varied and beneficial in the field of science and industry. Pasteur’s methods of conducting experiments illustrated brilliance, which started when he studied the crystal structure. He observed that tartrate, when created in a laboratory, was optically inactive. This is different from the tartrate from grapes because the artificial tartrate is composed of two optically asymmetric crystals. Pasteur succeeded in unraveling the asymmetric crystals from each other and showed that each regained optical activity.
He then theorized that living organisms only produce molecules that are of one specific objective and that these molecules are active at all times. This experiment contradicted ‘Mitscherlich’ who had observed only a single type of crystal. Later in his career, Pasteur was approached by the parent of one of his students, regarding a contamination problem in alcoholic fermentation. At the time fermentation leading to the making of wine, or beer was thought to be a simple breakdown of sugar to the favored molecules. Yeast cells were believed to be either a useful ingredient in maintaining or’ simply a product of fermentation. ·
The manufacturers of alcohol were having economic problems related to fermentation. Wine would suddenly tum sour or into vinegar, or the quality and taste of beer would suddenly change. Therefore, the producers would have to start anew. Pasteur proved that yeast was an organism which did not necessitate oxygen for fermentation to occur. This proved to Justin Von Liebig, who had upheld that fermentation was purely chemical, that he was incorrect.
Pasteur was able to prove that the yeast was responsible for forming alcohol from sugar and that contaminating microorganisms turned the fermentations sour. Over the years, he segregated the organisms that were responsible for normal and abnormal fermentations when producing wine or beer. He demonstrated that if he heated them to mild temperatures, this would kill the microorganisms and prevent souring. This was a major discovery and Pasteur showed brewers how to refine the right organisms for good beer. He proposed that heating milk to a high temperature before bottling it would prevent souring. This is now known as pasteurization.
All this had given Pasteur an iconic status throughout the world. After his research on fermentation, he refuted the principle of spontaneous generation. The theory that maggots, beetles and microbes could arise spontaneously from matter had always been a matter of speculation. Pasteur carried out ingenious experiments wiping-out every argument in favor of spontaneous generation. In his famous experiment using the ‘swan neck flask‘, fermented juice was put in a flask and after sterilization; the neck was heated, (this resembled the neck of a swan). The end of the neck was then sealed. If the flask was opened by pinching off the end of the neck, air would enter but dust would get trapped on the inside of the neck which was wet. The fluid, however, would still be germ free. If the flask was tipped over allowing the juice to touch the inside of the neck, microorganisms would grow instantly.
Pasteur’s work with silkworm parasites and germs led to the proposal of the gem theory of disease. After visiting the hospital wards, he became more aware of the infections being spread by physicians from sick patients to the healthy patients. He compelled doctors to disinfect their instruments by boiling and steaming them. Surgeons were told to wash their hands and use disinfectant. At the time, countries were suffering from anthrax, which is a disease that affects cattle. He believed it was possible that if the animals were intentionally infected with a very mild case of the disease, this may be enough to prevent them from getting the disease later on. To prove this, he needed to test his theory on live animals.
[A] They recovered and, when placed with cattle that did have the disease, they remained immune. [B] Pasteur’s last major research success was the development of a vaccine against rabies. [C] Institutes were built and people were treated for the disease in them. Pasteur was a national hero in France. [D] He died in 1895 and was given a state funeral.
31. The word “inactive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. motionless
B. occupied
C. dangerous
D. reactive
32. According to paragraph 2, what evidence contradicted the previous beliefs of ‘Mitscherlich’?
A. Proof of the process of fermentation
B. Molecules being active at all times
C. Observed only a single type of crystal
D. Molecules produce all living organisms
33. According to Pasteur’s experiments, what did he prove to be true?
A. The wine would change to vinegar because of fermentation.
B. Microorganisms were present in all alcoholic drinks.
C. Yeast was an organism that did not need oxygen to work.
D. The fermentation was a purely chemical process.
34. The word “necessitate” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. facilitate
B. require
C. produce
D. consume
35. According to paragraph 5, what did Pasteur publicly refute?
A. That fermentation contributed to spontaneous generation
B. That bottle-neck glasses can keep things germ-free
C. That maggots can form suddenly from matter without warning
D. That flies were created from the maggots on dead meat
36. Why does the author describe Pasteur’s ‘swan neck flask’ experiment in the passage?
A. To explain the method of scientific experimentation
B. To demonstrate the correct way to do a scientific experiment
C. To show how microbes contribute to spontaneous generation
D. To illustrate exactly how Pasteur determined his findings
37. The word “ingenious” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. original
B. tremendous
C. controlled
D. significant
38. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Most patients became sick from being infected by doctors in the emergency room.
B. Hospital wards had become dirty and dangerous places due to the lack of proper training and space.
C. Pasteur learned that infections could be transmitted to healthy patients from dirty, non-sterile instruments doctors had used, on previous patients.
D. Healthy patients could become·infected by sick people, simply by the shake of a hand or sharing a drink.
39. According to the passage, which method was NOT used in Pasteur’s experiments?
A. Sealed bottles under observation
B. Disinfection of materials and instruments
C. Heating to mild temperatures
D. Going into animal experimentation known to be scientifically unsound
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
Pasteur was successful in producing a safe version of anthrax bacteria which he then injected into a population of cows.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]


Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Writing (Test 5) - 60 Phút
Task 1: Your English-speaking friend, Natalie, sent you an email. Read part of her email below.
...
Thanks for inviting me to stay with you when I visit your country next month.
I'm not sure how to get to your apartment from the airport. Could you write back giving me some simple directions? What's the cheapest means of transport?
What will the weather be like when I get there? I'll need to know which clothes to pack.
Hope to get your early reply.
Natalie
Write a reply to Natalie. In your email, you have to express your excitement of her trip to your country, tell her how to get to your apartment from the airport and what the cheapest means of transport is, and tell her about the weather next month.
Task 2: You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
Nowadays many people have access to computers on a wide basis and a large number of children play computer games. What are the positive and negative impacts of playing computer games and what can be·done to minimize the bad effects? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.


Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Speaking (Test 5) - 12 Phút
Part 1: Social Interaction (3')
Let’s talk about parties.
- Do you enjoy going to a party?
- What do you usually do at a party?
- On what occasions do you hold a party?
Let’s talk about your city.
- Which part of the city do you like best?
- Why do you like it?
- Are there any changes you would like to make to the place?
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4')
Situation: You are considering buying a brand watch. There are three suggestions for how to get it: placing an order through a website, shopping in a mall, and calling over the phone. Which one is the best option for you?
Part 3: Topic Development (5')
Topic: There are several factors that lead to success in life.
- Why is money the most common way of judging success?
- Is your idea of success the same as your parents’ idea of success?
- Does luck play a part in success?


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Nguồn: Đề Thi Thử VSTEP B1-B2-C1 (Test 5) Full 04 Kỹ Năng (Có Đáp Án) – Tham khảo từ sách VSTEP Collection (20 Mock Tests) – ThS. Nguyễn Thị Tú, ThS. Bùi Thị Phương Thảo, ThS. Hoàng Thị Phong Linh, ThS. Trần Quang Nam & ThS. Lê Thùy Trang. Vui lòng trích dẫn nguồn khi dẫn qua trang khác.