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Đề Thi Vstep B1-B2-C1 (Test 4) Full 04 Kỹ Năng (Có Đáp Án)

Đề Thi Vstep B1-B2-C1 Full 04 Kỹ Năng

    • Bạn đang tìm kiếm Đề Thi Vstep bậc 3-5 (hay còn gọi là đề thi vstep B1/B2/C1) full 4 kỹ năng có đáp án?
    • Bạn cần nắm rõ cấu trúc Đề Thi Vstep 2023 để thi thử Vstep tại nhà nhằm chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi này?
    • Bạn có những thắc mắc liên quan đến điểm thi, hiệu lực chứng chỉ Vstep bậc 3-5 (B1-B2-C1)?
    • Thậm chí, bạn cần tìm hiểu về khóa học luyện thi Vstep cấp tốc 1.5 tháng hoặc ôn từ Căn bản 03 tháng tại Anh ngữ Thiên Ân?

Vậy thì … bạn cần phải làm đề thi vstep này ngay!!!
(Nếu cần hỗ trợ thêm, đừng ngần ngại chat với thầy cô ở góc phải dưới màn hình nhé!)

(Bài test được tham khảo từ sách VSTEP Collection (20 Mock Tests) – ThS. Nguyễn Thị Tú, ThS. Bùi Thị Phương Thảo, ThS. Hoàng Thị Phong Linh, ThS. Trần Quang Nam & ThS. Lê Thùy Trang)

Thông Tin Chi Tiết Về Đề Thi Vstep B1-B2-C1

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Đề Thi Vstep - Listening (Test 4) - 40 phút

Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.

There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.

Time allowance/ about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet:

Part 1 (Questions 1-8): In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.

There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.

Now, let's listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:

Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you've booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye. On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday? A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All meals

The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let's begin with the first question.

Question 1: What does the caller ask Ms. Cook to do?

A. Take along her medical insurance card
B. Make an appointment
C. Call the receptionist
D. Drive his car to the clinic

Question 2: Who is Sachiko Suzuki?

A. A job applicant
B. A receptionist
C. A client
D. A personnel officer

Question 3: What is the listener asked to do?

A. Order a new phone
B. Call back
C. Go to the office
D. Contact the speaker

Question 4: What is the purpose of this message?

A. To confirm an order
B. To order some furniture
C. To ask for order information
D. To inform a change

Question 5: What is the main purpose of the call?

A. To reschedule an interview
B. To arrange a class
C. To postpone an exhibition
D. To request an application

Question 6: What is Ms. Kim asked to do?


A. Return a phone call
B. Deliver a printer
C. Meet him on Friday
D. Change the order

Question 7: What is the decreasing percentage of domestic sales?

A. 7 percent
B. 11 percent
C. 17 percent
D. 70 percent

Question 8: What does the speaker say about Rea?

A. She can answer questions about safety equipment.
B. She can teach people how to skate.
C. She can provide safety helmet.
D. She can stake with others.

Part 2 (Questions 9-20): In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.

Questions 9 to 20 refer to the following conversation.

Question 9: What is the conversation mainly about?

A. Giving a presentation
B. Organizing an essay in a clear way
C. Finding a partner for a class project
D. Finding information and taking notes

Question 10: What does the professor recommend doing when taking notes?

A. Writing as quickly as possible
B. Making a summary
C. Checking the information
D. Getting lots of information

Question 11: What does the professor suggest the woman do?

A. She only needs to read the summary.
B. She should use computers to search for information.
C. She should go to the library to find information.
D. She should organize her notes.

Question 12: What is the likely outcome of using both books and computers as sources?

A. The student will need help doing the research.
B. The student will not be able to finish her project.
C. The student will have plenty of information.
D. The student will like books more than the computer.

Question 13: What is the main topic of this conversation?

A. The different sections of the library
B. How to check out library books
C. How to return the due books
D. The use of computer in the library

Question 14: Who is Mr. Baker likely be?

A. A librarian
B. A janitor
C. A shopkeeper
D. A student

Question 15: What does the woman need if she wants to use the self-service machine?

A. Librarian’s permission
B. Library account
D. A receipt

Question 16: How does the man explain the solution?

A. By mentioning the ways to check out books
B. By describing which books to check out
C. By giving information about the self-service machine
D. By explaining the procedure of borrowing books

Question 17: Why is the student looking for help?

A. He is supposed to meet with one of his friends.
B. He is looking for a part-time job.
C. He wants to know how to find a book.
D. He is struggling with his job.

Question 18: What kind of books is the man looking for?

A. Economics
B. Poetry
C. Geography
D. History

Question 19: How does the book listing organize the books?

A. Alphabetically
B. By the author’s name
C. By the subject and then title
D.:By the subject and then the author’s name

Question 20: What is implied about the student’s opinion of finding a book?

A. He thinks it will be easier than he expected.
B. He doesn’t think that he can do it.
C. He is not looking forward to trying to find a book.
D. He thinks that the librarian should find it for him.

Part 3 (Questions 21-35): In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.

Questions 21 to 35 refer to the following conversation.

Question 21: What is the lecture mainly about?

A. What heat is
B. How heat transfers
C. The properties of heat
D. Heatin hot air balloons

Question 22: What happens to a hot air balloon because of convection?

A. The balloon’s air is heated.
B. The balloon becomes filled with gas.
C. The balloon goes up and goes down.
D. The balloon’s flame gets hotter and hotter.

Question 23: What is the professor’s opinion of the conduction?

A. He finds it easiest to teach by cooking.
B. He feels that it is good for making buildings.
C. He believes that it is useful for heating buildings.
D. He thinks many people get hurt from it.

Question 24: Why does the professor mention a toaster?

A. To explain how toast is made by convection
B. To discuss how conduction makes toasters hot
C. To give an example of something that bums people
D. To give an example of heat radiation

Question 25. What can be inferred from the lecturer?

A. Heat moving through solid materials is convection.
B. Convection is not a pattern that repeats.
C. Heat cannot move through solid materials.
D. Some materials are better at conducting heat than others.

Question 26: What is the lecture mainly about?

A. The Impressionist painters and their work
B. Why people didn’t like Impressionism
C. How people posed in Impressionist paintings
D. The key features of Impressionist painting

Question 27: How did Impressionist art differ from previous art?

A. It featured people instead of landscapes.
B. It used new and different blends of colors.
C. It created a three-dimensional effect.
D. It was created outside using natural light.

Question 28: What is the speaker’s opinion of Impressionism?

A. She likes it because it is different.
B. She likes it because the colors blend so well.
C. She thinks it’s difficult because it uses natural light.
D. She doesn’t like it because it’s blurry.

Question 29: How are the points in the lecture organized?

A. In the order that the painters painted
B. From most difficult to least difficult
C. In the order the textbook mentions them.
D. By describing the most important points

Question 30: Why does the professor say this?

A. To show·why older styles ofart were better
B. To show how older styles of’art were different
C. To explain how the students should paint
D. To describe a famous canvas

Question 31: What is the lecture mainly about?

A. The writer of Watership Down
B. The main characters of Watership Down
C. The themes of Watership Down
D. The political ideas behind Watership-Down

Question 32: What is the reason the rabbits leave home?

A. They do not have any freedom.
B. Their home is going to be destroyed.
C. They want to have an adventure.
D. They want a new government.

Question 33: Why does the professor mention the leader of Efrafa?

A. To show the government style of Efrafa
B. To compare Efrafa and the Tham Warren
C. To describe how the rabbits typically acted
D. To show that the rabbits lived peacefully with others

Question 34: How is the professor’s lecture organized?

A. The themes of the story and how they are shown.
B. The characters and then what the themes aren’t.
C. The character comparisons followed by the contrasts.
D. The steps the author took in writing the book.

Question 35: What is the professor’s attitude towards Watership Down?

A. She thinks that it shows real life very well.
B. She believes that Watership Down is a very simple book. C. She thinks that the book is just about rabbits.
D. She thinks that it is hard to understand.

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Đề Thi Thử VSTEP - Reading (Test 4) - 60 Phút

Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D for each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.

As new industrialism swept over the land in the wake of the Civil War, people flocked to the nation’s cities in unprecedented·numbers from rural regions, villages, and foreign countries. Housing for the new city-dwellers took many forms as new architectural styles were developed.

During this period of urban expansion, speculative builders discovered a b0nanza in the form of the row house. Designed for single-family occupancy, these dwellings cost relatively little to construct because they shared common walls with their neighbors and because many could be erected side by side on a narrow street frontage. Along New York’s gridiron of streets and avenues rose block after block of row houses, which, by the 1880s, were almost invariably faced with brownstone. In contrast, wooden row houses on the West Coast appeared light and airy with their coats of bright paint. San Francisco developed a particularly successful row vernacular, suitable for rich and poor alike, as typified by clusters of homes like the Rountree group, which featured Queen Anne elements in their pitched roofs and heavily decorated exteriors. Although critics likened the facades of such structures to the “puffing, paint, and powder of our female friends”, the houses were efficiently planned, sanitary, and well-lighted. Virtually every dwelling boasted one or more bay windows, which were as important to sun-loving San Franciscans as brownstone fronts were to New Yorkers. As an English traveler observed, California architecture, “with all the windows gracefully leaping out at themselves”, should rightly be called the “bay-window order”.

1. The main purpose of the author in this passage is ____.

A. to contrast two versions of a similar architectural form
B. to persuade people to live in row houses
C. to argue for the excellence of California row houses
D. to describe the effects of urbanization

2. The phrase “a bonanza” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. a confusing choice
B. a difficult challenge
C. an exciting design
D. a good investment

3. The phrase “almost invariably” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. usually
B. seldom
C. sometimes
D. never

4. According to the passage, why did speculative builders profit from row houses?

A. Because they cost very little to build.
B. Because they were for single families.
C. Because they were well-constructed.
D. Because they were attractive.

5. All of the following can be inferred about row houses from the passage EXCEPT ____.

A. they provided for high-density housing
B. they housed people of different economic classes
C. they provided a new and popular form of architectural design
D. they had no front yards

6. The phrase “such structures” in the passage refers to ____.

A. West Coast wooden row houses
B. poor people’s houses
C. the homes in the Rountree group
D.Queen Anne’s home

7. What can be inferred from the passage about New York row houses?

A. They were less colorful than row houses on the West Coast.
B. They were windowless.
C. They were smaller than California row houses.
D. They were less similar in appearance than row liouses in California.

8. In the passage, critics of California row houses commented on their ____.

A. excessive use of bay windows
B. ostentatious decoration
C. repetitive nature
D. lack of light

9. The word “boasted” in the passage is used to indicate the owners’ ____.

A. skill
B. wealth
C. intelligence
D. pride

10. The author of the passage implies that the most important feature for Californians living in row houses was ____.

A. the color
B. the price
C. the windows
D. the heavily decorated exteriors

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.

The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and lack of water is the kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay underground during the day. At night, they go outside to look for food. As evening temperatures drop, moisture from the air forms on plants and seeds. They absorb some of this moisture and kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat.

11. What is the topic of this passage?

A. Desert plants
B. Life underground
C. Animal life in a desert environment
D. Man’s life in the desert

12. The word “greater” in the passage is· closest in meaning to ____.

A. stronger
B. larger
C. more noticeable
D. heavier

13. The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT ____.

A. water-loving animals
B. the bobcat 
C. moist-skinned animals
D. many large animals

14. The word “desiccating” in the passage means ____.

A. drying
B. humidifying
C. killing
D. life threatening

15. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT ____.

A. animals sleep during the day.
B. animals dig homes underground.
C. animals are noisy and aggressive.
D. animals are watchful and quiet.

16. The word “emaciated” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. wild
B. cunning
C. unmanageable.

17. The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they ____.

A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are less healthy than animals who five in different places
C. can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees
D. live in an accommodating environment

18. The word “subterranean” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. underground
B. safe
C. precarious
D. harsh

19. The word “they” in the passage refers to ____.

A. kangaroo rats
B. the desert population
C. plants and seeds
D. the burrows of desert animals

20. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

A. Water is the basis of life.
B. All living things adjust to their environments.
C. Desert life is colorful.
D. Healthy animals live longer lives.

Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as they cannot utilize free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems, nitrogen must be combined with oxygen or hydrogen to form compounds such as ammonia or nitrates that plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process involving high pressure and high temperature. This process is called nitrogen fixation. Martinus Willem Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.

The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a considerable amount of energy. There are three processes that are responsible for most of the nitrogen fixation in the biosphere. They are atmospheric fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation. Atmospheric fixation occurs through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where energy breaks down nitrogen molecules and enables their atoms to combine with oxygen in the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy in rain, forming nitrates, that are then carried to earth.

In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of microorganisms. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial enzymes called nitrogenase. More than 90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria Microorganisms that fix nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy source if they are non photosynthetic. However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply little fixed nitrogen to agricultural crops, whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacterias live close to plant roots and can obtain energy materials from the plants.

The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hairs of plants. Here they multiply the formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells and bacteria in close proximity. Within the nodules, the bacteria convert the free nitrogen to nitrates, which the plant makes use of for its development.

To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of legumes (beans, clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated, particularly in poor soils where bacteria is lacking. This system is the most important for agriculture as many legumes are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing nitrogen to the fanning system or as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are also a significant source of protein primarily for the developing world.

Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this method, atmospheric nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form ammonia, which in tum can be used directly as a fertilizer. It was during the early 19th century that the-importance of fixed nitrogen to growing plants was understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture; demand arose for nitrogen compounds to augment the natural supply present in the soil.

Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make gunpowder. This led to a global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen compound Toward the end of the 19th century, it was realized that Chilean imports would not meet future demands, and, in the event of a major war, without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would not be possible.

[A] Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with nitrogen, the reaction of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct combination of nitrogen with hydrogen. [B] Combining oxygen and nitrogen was inefficient in its use of energy. Both were costly and the process was abandoned. [C] It is named after FritzHaber and Carl Bosch, who determined that nitrogen from the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously high pressures and fairly high temperatures in the presence of an active mechanism to produce an extremely high quantity of ammonia. [D]

Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a rapid expansion of the construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries. This method is now one of the leading processes of the chemical industry throughout the world.

21. According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living organisms?

A. They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
B. They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate.
C. They must be absorbed by the plant to furnishits nitrogen,
D. They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen .

22. The word “breaks down” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. destroys
B. discontinues
C. ceases
D. decomposes

23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen fixation?

A. Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
B. It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
C. The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
D. Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.

24. According to paragraph 3, one factor needed for photosynthetic biological fixation is ____.

A. a light source
B. the presence of ammonia
C. 90% rainfall for a week
D. a chemical energy source

25. The word “affected” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. driven
B. influenced
C. stopped
D. changed 

26. Why does the author mention “diazotrophs” in the passage?

A. To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
B. To show how a plants roots are important for this process
C. To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
D. To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism

27. The word “invade” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A . attack
B. defend
C. occupy
D. dominate

28. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A. The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
B. Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
C. The fanning system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground.
D. Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.

29. According to paragraph 8, which of the following is characteristic of the Haber-Bosch process?

A. Producing low amount of Anunonia
B. Using extremely high pressures
C. Reducing the supply of nitrogen compounds
D. Leading to widespread use during World War I

30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.

However, the Haber-Bosch process which created ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is the most cost-effective nitrogen fixation process known.

Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]

Throughout Western civilization, women’s suffrage and the progression of these rights have played a pivotal role in its history. The best example of how these rights have progressed is in two nations that share a common history, Great Britain and the United States of America. [A] In England, the suffrage movement began in 1866 when prominent women’s rights reformers gathered over 1,500 signatures on a petition to Parliament appealing for the right to vote. [B] However, significant headway had not been made yet. Women’s rights activists soon grew combative and thus made certain that suffrage was a central issue. [C] In America, due to the Civil War, women’s suffrage was temporarily halted. However, from 1876, campaigns, referendums, and gatherings were organized and carried out. [D]

The influence of Great Britain on the United States cannot be understated, yet there are both significant differences and similarities in how suffrage rights have progressed and evolved within each of these nations. In both countries, suffrage was based on class, race, nation, and gender. The suffragists were outside of the political establishment, campaigning alone and without support. They were predominately white and middle class in both countries, and their arguments reflected their class. In the first phase of the two countries, the arguments for suffrage focused on equality, and then turned to women’s contribution to nation building after World War I.

Feudalism and hereditary rule predated the establishment of limited suffrage in Great Britain. Aspects of this system remained for a significant period of time with only the wealthy and land-owning males allowed to vote. This system was based on the principles that the wealthy would vote in the interests of the nation, just as the monarchy of Britain would rule in the interest of all its subjects. This distributive system of power played an important role in the history of the United States.

English landowners asserted their right to vote based on their personal wealth. Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America. In 1776, a clause that guaranteed voting rights for white, male landowners was included in the United States Declaration of Independence. This was identical to the suffrage rights in Great Britain at that time in history. Voting was generally perceived not as a right, but as a privilege that only those who owned land could exercise.

By 1786, the United States Constitution had been amended to give individual states the power to establish their own suffrage rights. As a result of this, in 1791, Vermont passed a law declaring that all white males, regardless of whether they possessed property or not, could vote. In contrast, it was not until the Chartist movement in Great Britain in the 1840s that a popular movement had demanded wider suffrage rights. The eventual failure of the Chartist movement in 1850 ensured that only one in every five adult males in England was entitled to vote. While popular suffrage reform stalled in Great Britain, it accelerated in America during this period. In the wake of the American Civil War, the Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution granted African-American men the right to vote throughout the country. However, just as in England, women remained excluded by law from voting.

In the aftermath of the first World war, suffrage rights were extended to include women. This change took place first in America in 1920 with the 1991 amendment to the Constitution. It was not until 1928 that voting rights between men and women in Great Britain were equalized. As suffrage rights have extended to include groups formerly excluded, this trend continues in the West. In 1971, a further amendment lowered the age of voting from 20 to 18 in America. Today, in Great Britain and the majority of Western nations, the voting age is 18.

Initially, the progression of suffrage rights in America mirrored Great Britain’s. The wealthy male landowners dominated voting and, therefore, political power, and voted only in their interests. In the wake of the American Civil War and the first World War suffrage rights were extended to African-Americans, women, and individuals possessing no property, which boosted their status from lower class citizens to a higher level. Today, suffrage, in its universal form, plays a key role in democracies worldwide.

31. According to paragraph 1, why were 1,500 signatures gathered on a petition?

A. Women sought the right to peaceful demonstrations.
B. Women and men urged for the right to vote and own property.
C. Women were requesting the right to vote.
D. Collaboration was needed to facilitate women’s right to vote.

32. The word “progressed” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. withheld
B. withstood
C. advanced
D. contained

33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was true of the suffragist movement?

A. Suffragists had a chance to change their position in society.
B. Women achieved their goal of winning full voting rights.
C. It was primarily run by working class women.
D. Most suffragists were moderate in their tactics.

34. According to paragraph 4, the United States Declaration of Independence guaranteed ____.

A. that African Americans could vote
B. that all 21- year olds could vote
C. that women could vote and hold political office
D. that only white, male landowners were allowed to vote

35. The word “their” in the passage refers to ____.

A. Englishmen
B. British royalty
C. English landowners
D. American landowners

36. Why does the author mention that “Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America”?

A. To argue that the right to vote only was exercised by the wealthy and elite .
B. To provide evidence that voting was not a right only for those who owned land
C. To show that the right to voting privileges only was granted to wealthy male property holders
D. To support the claim that the right to vote was an attribute of U.S. citizenship

37. The word “stalled” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.

A. prevented
B. profited
C. contributed
D. halted

38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Chartist movement?

A. Suffrage rights became the standard and expanded to include people of middle Eastern descent after the Chartist movement failed.
B. The Chartist movement was quashed by a group of hostile forces who were opposed to progression.
C. The Chartist movement helped ensure that only woman could vote.
D. The progression of suffrage rights started to slow after the Chartist movement failed.

39. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A. In the period following the Civil War and World War I, voting rights were extended to most minorities.
B. No one could vote in Great Britain unless they owned land, were white, and could read.
C. War in Europe and America led many countries to disallow people of color the right to vote.
D. Voting has always been considered a privilege in most Western countries.

40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.

American suffragists, however, were not as aggressive as their British counterparts.

Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]

Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Writing (Test 4) - 60 Phút

Task 1: Your English-speaking friend, Mary, whom you haven't met for a long time, sent you an email. Read part of her email below.

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

Do you remember me? We met when you visited my high school in Oxford during your summer trip to England 3 years ago. We haven't heard from each other for a long time, right? Anyway, how are you? What have you been doing? You always wanted to be a teacher!
Here 'some of my news. I'm studying Laws at Oxford University. I think I have changed a lot over the years. I don't like thrillers any more. I prefer history books now. Do you remember Pete, the tall thin guy with glasses? He's on the same course as me. We are best friends now!
Well, I must finish now because I have an exam tomorrow. It would be really good if we could get together again.
Write back soon and tell me all your news.
Write a reply to Mary. In your email, you have to tell her you still remember her and the time you visited her high school, tell her all your news, and ask her to send your regards to Pete.

You should write at least 120 words.

Task 2: You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
Levels of youth crime are increasing rapidly in major cities in Viet Nam. What are the reasons for this? Suggest some solutions. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.

You should write at least 250 words.

Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Speaking (Test 4) - 12 Phút

Let’s talk about your favorite color.

  • What color(s) do you like most?
  • Do you care for colors when choosing clothes to wear?
  • Does color affect your mood/feeling?

Let’s talk about going to the library.

  • How often do you go to the library?
  • What do you usually do in the library?
  • Do you think that fewer people go to the library nowadays?

Situation: You are going to celebrate your birthday. There are three suggestions for the place where you can hold the party: in a fast-food restaurant, in a sit-down restaurant, and in your house. What do you think is the best choice?

Topic: More recycling centers should be built in communities.

de thi vstep b1 b2 c1 4 ky nang co dap an - anh ngu thien an


  • Are you aware of what recycling means?
  • Do you recycle as part of your everyday life?
  • Do you agree that everyone should reuse and recycle products?

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