Đề Thi Thử Vstep Full 04 Kỹ Năng
- Bạn đang tìm kiếm Đề Thi Thử Vstep bậc 3-5 (hay còn gọi là đề thi B1/B2/C1) full 4 kỹ năng có đáp án?
- Bạn cần nắm rõ cấu trúc Đề Thi Thử Vstep 2023 để thi thử VSTEP tại nhà nhằm chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi này?
- Bạn có những thắc mắc liên quan đến điểm thi, hiệu lực chứng chỉ VSTEP bậc 3-5 (B1-B2-C1)?
- Thậm chí, bạn cần tìm hiểu về khóa học luyện thi VSTEP cấp tốc 1.5 tháng hoặc ôn từ Căn bản 03 tháng tại Anh ngữ Thiên Ân?
Vậy thì … bạn cần phải làm đề thi thử vstep này ngay!!!
(Nếu cần hỗ trợ thêm, đừng ngần ngại chat với thầy cô ở góc phải dưới màn hình nhé!)(Bài test được tham khảo từ sách VSTEP Collection (20 Mock Tests) – ThS. Nguyễn Thị Tú, ThS. Bùi Thị Phương Thảo, ThS. Hoàng Thị Phong Linh, ThS. Trần Quang Nam & ThS. Lê Thùy Trang)
- Cấu trúc đề thi IELTS (Academic & General)
- Cấu trúc đề thi VSTEP (B1-B2-C1)
- Cấu trúc đề thi PET (B1) Cambridge
- Cấu trúc đề thi TOEIC Speaking & Writing
- Cấu trúc đề thi TOEIC Listening & Reading
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi IELTS
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi PET (B1)
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi TOEIC Speaking & Writing
- Kinh nghiệm làm bài thi TOEIC Listening & Reading
Thông Tin Chi Tiết Về Đề Thi Thử Vstep
Bạn xem thông tin chi tiết tại đây nhé! https://anhnguthienan.edu.vn/cau-truc-de-thi-vstep/
Đề Thi Thử Vstep - Listening (Test 3) - 40 phút
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Part 1 (Questions 1-8): In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you've booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye. On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday? A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All meals
Part 1 (Q1-4)
Question 1: Why is the speaker apologizing?
A. To schedule a checkup
B. To delay a meeting
C. To confirm an appointment
D. To request some files
Question 2: Why would Daniel Jergens like to reschedule the meeting?
A. To satisfy a request from Barrier Associates
B. To complete the purchase more quickly
C. To reconsider the contract
D. To avoid the severe weather condition
Question 3: Why will the information technology division be relocating earlier?
A. Because of an increase in staff
B. Because of aninterruption of network service
C. Because of the full relocation
D. Because of the high release costs
Question 4: What is the message mainly about?
A. A question about substituting order items
B. A question about the number of the items
C. The list of items that will be delivered
D. The shipping service that will be used
Part 1 (Q5-8)
Question 5: What is the purpose of the talk?
A. To address customer complaints
B. To discuss a presentation
C. To celebrate a new contract
D. To hand out assignments
Question 6: Who most likely is the speaker?
A. A landlord
B. A business executive
C. A real estate agent
D. A police officer ·
Question 7: What will be provided for the travelers?
A. A free flight
B. Meal vouchers
C. Winter clothing
D. Hotel rooms
Question 8: What is the celebration for?
A. A merger
B. An anniversary
C. A new CEO
D. A stock offering
Part 2 (Questions 9-20): In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Part 2 (Q9-12)
Question 9: Where most likely is the plumber now? ·
A. He is having lunch.
B. He is working somewhere else.
C. He is at home relaxing.
D. He is doing a favor for the man.
Question 10:When is the plumber expected to arrive?
A. At one o’clock
B. At two o’clock
C. At three o’clock
D. At four o’clock
Question 11: Where is the man going?
A. To meet a client
B. To talk to the plumber
C. To fix the pipe
D. To have lunch
Question 12: When will the man come back to his office?
A. At one o’clock
B. At two o’clock
C. At three o’clock
D. At four o’clock
Part 2 (Q13-16)
Question 13: When is the conference scheduled to take place?
A. Today
B. Tomorrow
C. Next week
D. Next month
Question 14: Why will John miss the conference?
A. He is going on a business trip.
B. He is taking a vacation in Europe.
C. He has too much work.
D. He has to review the videos.
Question 15: Where has the man just been to for a business trip?
A. Chicago
B. Toronto
C. Europe
D. Asia
Question 16: Why is the man thanking the woman?
A. She offered to give him aride.
B. She will lend him her video recorder.
C. She will go to the seminar in his place.
D. She will record the sessions he wants to see.
Part 2 (Q17-20)
Question 17: Where is the conversation most likely taking place?
A. In a truck
B. At the bus stop
C. In a warehouse
D. At an electronics store
Question 18: When will the computers arrive at the store?
A.In five minutes
B. In fifteen minutes
C. By this evening
D. By tomorrow morning
Question 19: Who most likely the man is?
A. A manager
B. A director
C. A secretary
D. A blue worker
Question 20: What will the man do next?
A. Call the electronics shop
B. Talk to the truck driver
C. Turn on the computer
D. Lift some boxes
Part 3 (Questions 21-35): In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Part 3 (21-25)
Question 21: What is the main topic in this lecture?
A. Russian leaders
B. The Cold War
C. The wars between the USSR and the US
D. The impacts of the Cold War
Question 22: Why did the US and the USSR never actually fight each other?
A. Because the USSR had nuclear weapons.
B. Because the US were afraid of Stalin.
C. Because they did not want to destroy the world.
D. Because nuclear power could destroy the US.
Question 23: According to the professor, how long did the Cold War last?
A. Around 50 years
B. Around 60 years
C. Around 70 years
D. Around 80 years
Question 24: What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The Cold War was caused by different opinions.
B. The Cold War was a long, violent war between the US and USSR.
C. The Cold War was an important time in history of the US and the USSR.
D. The Cold War changed the world dramatically.
Question 25. How does the professor describe the main topic?
A. By comparing and contrasting
B. By giving examples
C. By listing the events chronologically
D. By giving definitions
Part 3 (Q26-30)
Question 26: What is the lecture mainly about?
A. The way the eye sees colors
B. The steps to paint in a Neo-Impressionism style
C. The artists who learned from Seurat
D. The difference between painting styles
Question 27: What is the professor’s opinion of this style of painting?
A. He thinks painting in brush strokes is a better way.
B. He is surprised that so many artists are good at it.
C. He thinks it is difficult to learn.
D. He doesn’t like it.
Question 28: According to the professor, why did Seurat not blend his paints?
A. He thought it would ruin the paints.
B. He thought mixed paints did not look real.
C. He thought blended paints made paintings look too divided.
D. He thought it would make the art bright.
Question 29: What is true about Georges Seurat?
A. He was the best artist at his time.
B. He was proud of his painting style.
C. He used brush strokes to make the pictures brighter.
D. He didn’t spend a lot of time finishing his paintings.
Question 30: How did the professor organize the information about this way of painting?
A. By describing only Seurat’s style
B. By describing only other styles
C. By comparing Seurat and other Neo-Impressionists D. By comparing Neo-Impressionism and other styles
Part 3 (Q31-35)
Question 31: What is the lecture about?
A. The feeding habits of snakes
B. How certain snakes protect themselves
C. The most dangerous snakes in the world
D. The different uses of sriake poison
Question 32: Why does the professor discuss the beads on a rattlesnake’s tail?
A. To show how the rattlesnake is more dangerous than other snakes
B. To compare the rattlesnake to less scary animals
C. To explain how the rattlesnake scares off animals
D. To describe how the rattlesnake uses its tail to hunt
Question 33: According to the professor, where does the spitting cobra spray its poison?
A. At the animal it is hunting
B. At other snakes
C. At the tongue of an animal that is attacking it
D. At the eyes of an animal that is attacking it
Question 34: What is the professor’s attitude towards the hognose snake?
A. She is amazed by it.
B. She thinks that it is stupid.
C. She thinks that it is the best snake.
D. She thinks that it is the most dangerous.
Question 35: What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The spitting cobra rattles its tail.
B. The hognose snake pretends to be sick.
C. Beads in a rattlesnake’s tail make the sound.
D. There are.no creatures that eat snakes.
Đề Thi Thử VSTEP - Reading (Test 3) - 60 Phút
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D for each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as peers “and expands from them, and includes the world connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations”. At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated “the literature of argument”, powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.
1. The main idea of this passage is ____.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
D. that most people were wary of the new literature
2. It can be inferred that the previous passage probably discussed ____.
A. the importance of tradition to writers
B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. the fashions and values of 19th century America
D. the limitations of American literature to this time
3. The word “evolved” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. became famous
B. turned back
C. diminished
D. changed
4. The word “it” in the passage refers to
A. the population
B. the energy
C. American literature
D. the manufacturing
5. The word “exotic” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. urban
B. unusual
C. well-known
D. old-fashioned
6. The author uses the word “indeed” in the passage for what purpose?
A. To emphasize the contrast he is making
B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph
C. To wind down his argument
D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
7. The phrase “these years” in the passage refers to ____.
A. 1850-1900
B. the 1900s
C. the early 1800s
D. the present
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman ____.
A. disliked urban life
B. was disapproving of the new literature
C. wrote Leaves of Grass.
D. was an international diplomat
9. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT ____.
A. It was not highly regarded internationally.
B. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings.
C. It broke with many literary traditions of the past.
D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change.
10. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
A. European history
B. American literature
C. Current events
D. International affairs
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan’s elegant stone Missouri farmhouse on September 26, 1820, the surge of emigrants along the Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone already exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical giant (five feet nine) nor the innocent child of nature that legend has made of him. He was an intelligent, soft spoken family man who cherished the same wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he told his wife it was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was joking. Pennsylvania- born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers who migrated to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age 40 to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers and establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone’s employers, the Transylvania Company. It was all fair and square the Indians had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound advice of their squaws. Toe deal completed, Boone led a party from Tennessee through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set up a town Boonesboro and a government. Elected a legislator, he introduced on the first session’s first day a bill to protect game against wanton slaughter and a second bill to “improve the breed of horses.” He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution in which Boone won considerable fame as a militia commander the scheme of the Transylvania Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his land. Undaunted, he staked out more claims and lost them because he impatiently neglected to register his deeds. Ever hopeful, he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to come and settle there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres and made him a judge. But the, Louisiana Purchase, which embraced Missouri, again left him but not his children landless. Old and broke, Boone cheerfully continued hunting find trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking knowledgeably with young men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.
11. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
B. To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
C. To show Boone’s many successes on the frontier
D. To trace Boone’s explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
12. It can ‘be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was ____.
A. politics
B. hunting and trapping
C. business
D. the military
13. The phrase “fair and square” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. honest
B. simple
C. efficient
D. lucrative
14. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died ____.
A. a rich man
B. an eternal optimist
C. in California
D. a lonely trapper
15. According to the passage, where is Boone’s namesake city located?
A. In North Carolina
B. In Transylvania
C. In Kentucky
D. In Missouri
16. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to ____.
A. settle Kentucky
B. ensure animal rights
C. be fair to the Indians
D. claim Missouri
17. The word “undoubted” in the passage is closet in meaning to ____.
A. unscrupulous
B. fearless
C. undiscouraged
D. uninformed
18. According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase ____.
A. legitimized Boone’s land claim in Missouri
B. revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
C. drove the Spanish from the East
D. excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction
19. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone’s children?
A. They were better off financially than Boone.
B. They supported Boone’s desire to settle new areas.
C. They lived in Kentucky.
D. They had no land due to Boone’s bad investments.
20. The author’s attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage can be best described as ____.
A. admiring
B. critical
C. admonishing
D. indifferent
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30
The Solar System, as we know it, contains over 178 objects which revolve around our central star, or the Sun. Some of these objects can be seen from Earth with the unaided eye or an earth-based telescope, but the majority have only been detected through the development of instruments such as the Hubble Space Telescope, or unmanned probes like Voyager. These instruments operate outside Earth’s atmosphere collecting information on the composition and behavior of objects in the Solar System, which has enabled researchers to hypothesize their origins.
[A] It is generally thought that a cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a ‘nebula’, was disturbed by some major event in space, possibly a supernova, about five billion years ago and began to collapse under its own gravity, forming a cloud. [B] The center of the cloud became so hot that it eventually exploded into a star with the cooler gases flowing around it. [C] In time, the gases condensed into dust, metals, and various kinds of ice in the cold outer reaches of space. [D] These solid particles collided with each other to form larger objects, or asteroids, a s they continued to spin around our central star.
As these asteroids increased in size, their gravity began topull in all the material in their immediate surroundings, and the largest of these went on to become planets. The very different composition of the inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) and the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune and Uranus) has led astronomers to hypothesize.that their distances from the Sun caused them to develop at different rates and in different ways. According to the most widely-held opinions, the planets closest to the Sun, where all the ice particles were vaporized due to the incredible heat, were formed mostly of rock, silicates, and metals with high melting points. These particles collided and were pulled together by gravity. These inner planets have thin atmospheres or none at all, and few, if any, satellites, which would indicate that most of the available material was either pulled into their own gravity or burned away in the heat of the Sun.
The inner and outer planets are separated by an asteroid belt, consisting of material that was not able to form into planets due to Jupiter’s immense gravity. Beyond this area, as more dust and ice particles escaped destruction by the Sun, four larger planets formed over a longer period of time in a far colder environment as material was thrown out from the center by the spinning star’s centrifugal force. About a million years after the cooling of the original nebula, the Sun began to emit a stream of charged protons and electrons known as solar wind which blew the remaining gases outwards, to be sucked in by the outer planets which became gas giants. These planets attracted many objects in their vast gravity fields, some of which are big enough to be termed ‘satellites’, and countless smaller fragments which formed rings around the planets.
The discovery of more objects in the Solar System in recent times has led to the need for further classification. Far beyond the outer planets lies Pluto, which was originally considered to be the ninth planet, but which has since been found to be a binary system of two dwarf planets, the other being Charon. Pluto’s origins may be in the recently discovered Kuiper Belt, the source of many of the comets which travel through the Solar System. This theory is based on Pluto’s rock/ice composition which is similar to that of a comet. At one time, also thought to be a moon of Neptune, Pluto/Charon was reclassified in 2006 as one of three dwarf planets discovered so fat, the others being Eris and Ceres.
Scientific knowledge is only as good as the ability of scientists to collect evidence, so as new advances are made in astronomy, the present theories may be disproved, as in the case of Pluto. The above account represents the consensus of current opinions on the matter.
21. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the role of theHubbleSpaceTelescope?
A. It is too defective for our scientists to come up with definite answers to the origin of the universe.
B. Scientists discovered.billions of new planets by combining measurements from the Hubble Space Telescope with Voyager measurements.
C. It solved the age of the universe and measured the age of what may be the youngest galaxy ever seen in the universe.
D. It has helped unveil many mysteries or queries about our universe.
22. The word “composition” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. make-up
B. musical
C. evolution
D. revolution
23. The word “disturbed” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. broken
B. attracted
C. bothered
D. imported
24. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Planets formed from gases and dust particles after comets collided with the Sun.
B. According to scientists, the manner in which planets developed was wholly dependent on their distance from Jupiter’s rings.
C. The dissimilar make-up of the planets closest to the Sun and those farthest from the Sun suggests that their distance from the Sun affected their formation.
D. Scientists believe the Sun evolved from the composition of several older planets in the solar system.
25. According to paragraph 4, the inner and outer planets are separated by what?
A. An asteroid belt
B. A star
C. Comets
D. A moon
26. According to the passage, all of the following are true about our solar system EXCEPT ____.
A. Planets nearest the Sun were formed mostly of rock.
B. There continue to be new discoveries as technology improves.
C. Colliding asteroids eventually formed planets.
D. Most of the comets in the solar system can be seen with the naked eye during an annular solar eclipse.
27. Why does the author mention “Pluto” in paragraph 5?
A. To discuss Pluto’s rock/ice composition
B. To introduce the concept of planet formation
C. To.show that new discoveries are always occurring
D. To introduce the distinction between planets and dwarf planets
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the planets ____.
A. broke off from the rapidly spinning Moon.
B. collided more frequently, to spur the formation and growth of protoplanets
C. were initially asteroids
D. were formed by the collision of massive objects circling a black hole in eccentric orbits
29. According to the passage, what were the universe’s origins?
A. A nebula collapsed under its gravity.
B. A black hole exploded and merged to create the universe.
C. A super being wished it into existence.
D. The Sun collapsed in on itself.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
This cloud began to rotate rapidly as it got smaller and denser and heated up to several thousand degrees, causing some of its elements to vaporize into gas.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a method of producing electricity developed from the temperature difference that subsists between deep and shallow waters. It converts solar radiation to electric power. The system uses the ocean’s natural thermal gradient to direct a power-producing cycle. To produce a significant amount of power, the temperature between warm water on the surface and deep cold water should differ by about 20 degrees Celsius: On average, 23 million square miles of tropical seas absorb an amount of solar radiation equal in heat content to about 250 million barrels of oil. If less than one tenth of this could be converted into electric power, it would provide more than 20 times the total amount of electricity utilized in America on any given day.
Oceans are a huge renewable resource with the possibility of producing millions of watts of electric power. Some experts think the cold, deep seawater that is used in the OTEC process is rich in nutrients and, therefore, can be used to culture marine and plant life on shore or on land.
There are certain conditions which have to be met to enable OTEC to work. First, commercial OTEC facilities must be located in an environment that is stable enough for efficient system operation. This means that they must be built on land or submerged on the continental shelf. In addition, the natural ocean thermal gradient necessary for OTEC operation is generally found between latitudes 20° N and 20° S. The temperature of the surface water must differ from that of deep water and allowances should be made for a wide-open space. Tropical islands meet the requirements for a wide space, so they are areas for OTEC development. Land-based facilities offer advantages. For example, plants do not require extensive maintenance, and they can be installed in sheltered areas, safe from storms and general bad weather. Land-based sites allow OTEC plants to function with related industries.
Thermal energy from the ocean was first proposed as far back as 1881. However, it wasn’t until 1930 that a system was built, producing 22kw of electricity. Another was constructed sometime later, but it was destroyed by waves. In 1980, the U.S department of energy built a site for OTEC heat exchangers on board a navy ship. Tests revealed that OTEC systems are able to function on slow moving ships and are of little consequence to the surrounding marine environment.
In 1981, Japan established a closed-cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean, producing 40,000 watts of electricity. In May 1993, another 50,000 watts of electricity was produced. However, it was an impractical energy source as the materials used were expensive. Currently, scientists are continuing to develop more cost effective and open-cycle OTEC systems. An integrated OTEC system can help create harmonious, self sustaining island communities, independent of imported fossil fuels and their associated costs.
Tidal energy is another form of ocean energy caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun, and the rotation of the Earth. When tides come into shore, they can be trapped in reservoirs behind dams. Then when the tide lowers, the water behind the dam can be released, functioning similarly to a hydroelectric power plant. Tidal dams can change the tidal level. In the local basin, affecting the navigation. The prime disadvantage is the effect a tidal station has on plants and animals. However, tidal fences, which are also used to channel the energy of tides, have less environmental impact than traditional sources of power such as fossil fuels or nuclear power, and are cheaper to install.
Turbines are devices with blades attached to a central rod that spin when a force hits the blades. [A] This spinning motion is extremely practical. The first turbine used was the undershot waterwheel, probably the oldest type of waterwheel dating back over 2,000 years. [B] Waterwheels and windmills were the first turbines; their wooden blades captured the power of wind or rivers to lift water for irrigation or to rotate huge stones to grind grain. [C] It wasn’t until the 1880s, when the generator was first invented, that people began using turbines to produce electricity. [D]
31. According to paragraph 1, OTEC uses, what to produce power?
A. The wave energy stored in the Earth’s oceans
B. The salt in the ocean
C. The seawater temperature differences
D. The tropical oceans’ warm surface water
32. The word “absorb” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. take
B. work together with
C. reject
D. make efficient
33. The word “converted” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. consumed
B. released
C. used
D. transformed
34. In paragraph 3, the author mentions “The temperature of the surface water” as an example of ____.
A. the requirements for the perfect OTEC settlement
B. the specific requirements needed for OTEC to work
C. the careful calculations and considerations needed in OTEC
D. why water based programs are always superior to land-based ones
35. According to paragraph 5, what does the author say was the main problem with the closed cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean?
A. It was damaged by the salt water.
B. It was environmentally damaging to the area.
C. It could not generate electricity without pollution.
D. The overall cost was far too high to be economically feasible.
36. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in iinportant ways or leave out essential information.
A. The beauty of the OTEC system is that it allows islands to be self-sufficient.
B. The OTEC system could prove to lead the world in an age of co-dependency.
C. A completely autonomous, cost effective society could be created by the system.
D. The system could mean that societies are no longer dependent on fossil fuels.
37. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is true of tidal energy?
A. It is derived from the hydrological climate cycle.
B. It is based on the small fluctuation of tide in a given area.
C. It has no environmental and ecological effects on local inhabitants. .
D. It needs a barrage to convert tidal energy into electricity.
38. The word “practical” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. unnecessary
B. swift
C. useful
D. sensitive
39. The following are all characteristics of the OTEC system EXCEPT ____.
A. It seeks to harness the temperature difference.
B. It is not technically feasible for the production of base load electricity.
C. It can be practiced on slow moving ships.
D. It can create self-sufficient systems.
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
It was turned by water flowing under the wheel and striking the boards.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Writing (Test 3) - 60 Phút
Task 1: Your English-speaking friend, Clare, has recently gone to live in another city. Read part of her email below.
...
Well, I've now been here for two weeks and I'm beginning to get used to my new life here. I've certainly been very busy since I moved here - there have been all sorts of things happening!
I'm quite happy in my new home although lots of my belongings are still in bags and boxes! I'm hoping to find time to unpack everything soon.
I'm glad I decided to come and live here - it's a really good city. But there are some things and people that I miss of course!
It would be really good if you could come and stay with me here, perhaps in a couple of months when I really settle down. What do you think?
Keep in touch.
Clare.
Write a reply to Clare. In your email, you have to ask her what is happening to her, tell her to describe her new home, ask her to tell you what and who she misses after she moves there and suggest the time when you can visit her.
Task 2: You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
Some people argue that we have to think twice before deciding to eat fast food because of some health problems it may cause, while others believe that this kind of food is a good choice for those with a very busy life. Which opinion do you agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Đề Thi Mẫu VSTEP - Speaking (Test 3) - 12 Phút
Part 1: Social Interaction (3')
Let’s talk about noise.
- Do you like to live in a noisy place or a quiet place?
- What kind of noise disturbs you most?
- Does noise affect your health?
Let’s talk about your favorite photograph.
- What is your favorite photograph?
- When was it taken?
- What makes the photograph special to you?
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4')
Situation: You are thinking about how to spend your evening. There are three options: hanging out with friends, reading books, and surfing the Internet. Explain your choice.
Part 3: Topic Development (5')
Topic: There are several ways for people to make friends.
- Should people trust online friends? Why or why not?
- What factors can contribute to a true friendship?
- Which one is more important: family or friends?
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Nguồn: Đề Thi Thử VSTEP B1-B2-C1 (Test 3) Full 04 Kỹ Năng (Có Đáp Án) – Tham khảo từ sách VSTEP Collection (20 Mock Tests) – ThS. Nguyễn Thị Tú, ThS. Bùi Thị Phương Thảo, ThS. Hoàng Thị Phong Linh, ThS. Trần Quang Nam & ThS. Lê Thùy Trang. Vui lòng trích dẫn nguồn khi dẫn qua trang khác.
